It is possible few are interested. But I just want to make amends.
I had a posting yesterday:
How China's Lefts Feel About Bo Xilai 'Incident'
yilubbs.com/thread-17467-1-1.html
One paragraph is: "Mr. Wang suggests the public drama surrounding Mr. Bo — a narrative laced with ambition, murder and lust and reminiscent of a Jacobean revenge tragedy — may actually be a piece of deliberate, deadly political theater whose aim is to enlighten and obscure simultaneously, to mesmerize the world with lurid detail and to distract attention from what has actually happened.
The following is what I forgot to add yesterday:
"Note: The report mentions "a Jacobean revenge tragedy."
(a) revenge play http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Revenge_play
(a form of tragedy which was extremely popular in the Elizabethan and Jacobean eras; such as William Shakespeare's Hamlet)
(b) Jacobean (adj; Jacobus is Latin for James; First Known Use 1844):
"of, relating to, or characteristic of James I of England or his age" www.m-w.com
(c) James (name)
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_(name)
(d) When did the two names bifurcate (in English)? I do not know. When did the two names appear in English-language bible, with Jacob reserved for Old Testament? It is an intense topic of research.
(e) Unlike English, many European languages do not have separate spellings for the two names. But "even the languages that don’t supply a starkly different form for the New Testament author tend to differentiate the Old Testament patriarch in some way: German 'Jakob' OT, 'Jakobus' NT; the Vulgate, 'Iacob' OT, 'Iacobus' NT. Likewise, he [Dwight Peterson of Eastern University] notes that the French Bible Jerusalem in his collection identifies the OT figure as 'Jacob,' while the NT figure is 'Jacques.'"
OT and NT are Old Testament and New Testament, respectively.